Governance important part of polity syllabus. Previous Year Question (PYQ) papers are invaluable resources for aspirants preparing for competitive exams like the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) examinations. In this article we present important PYQ on Governance.
PYQ on Governance
Q- With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements: (2022)
- The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House.
- The law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer- Option B
EXPLANATION
Statement 1: A nominated member of a legislative house will be disqualified if they join a political party after six months from taking their seat. However, within the initial six months, they are permitted to join a political party without facing disqualification.
Statement 2: The Tenth Schedule of the law doesn’t establish a specific timeframe within which the Presiding Officer must decide on a disqualification plea.
Q- At the national level, which ministry is the nodal agency to ensure effective implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006? (2021)
(a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climatic change.
(b) Ministry of Panchayat Raj
(c) Ministry of Rural Development
(d) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
Answer- Option D
EXPLANATION
The Ministry of Tribal Affairs (MoTA) is the primary authority responsible for overseeing the implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition Of Forest Rights) Act, 2006. This ministry is tasked with addressing forest-related issues and livelihood concerns on a national scale.
Q- A legislation which confers on the executive or administrative authority an unguided and uncontrolled discretionary power in the matter of the application of law violates which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India? (2021)
(a) Article 14
(b) Article 28
(c) Article 32
(d) Article 44
Answer- Option A
EXPLANATION
Article 14 of the Indian Constitution mandates that the State cannot deny any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within India’s territory. The concept of “equality before the law” is a fundamental aspect of the Rule of Law and comprises three elements:
- Absence of arbitrary power
- Equality before the law, implying equal subjection of all citizens to the regular law of the land
- The constitution is the product of individual rights
In India, the first two elements are relevant. Therefore, “equality before law” as enshrined in Article 14 signifies the absence of arbitrary power among authorities. Consequently, if a law grants unchecked discretionary powers to any authority, it violates Article 14 of the constitution.
Q- Which one of the following best defines the term “State”? (2021)
(a) A community of persons permanently occupying a definite territory independent of external control and possessing an organized government.
(b) A politically organized people of a definite territory and possessing an authority to govern them, maintain law and order, protect their natural rights and safeguard their means of sustenance.
(c) A number of persons who have been living in a definite territory for a very long time with their own culture, tradition and government.
(d) A society permanently living in a definite with a central authority, an executive responsible to the central authority and an independent judiciary.
Answer- Option A
EXPLANATION
A state can be defined as a group of individuals permanently inhabiting a specific area of land, having autonomy from external influence, and governed by a structured authority.
In accordance with Max Weber’s perspective, a state is a societal entity that holds exclusive control over the legitimate application of physical force within its designated boundaries.
The state is characterized by the presence of a government that holds the power to implement a set of regulations governing the population within its jurisdiction. This system of regulations typically comprises constitutional provisions, legislative enactments, administrative directives, and judicial precedents.
Q- With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2021)
1. There is only one citizenship and one domicile.
2. A citizen by birth only can become the Head of State.
3. A foreigner once granted citizenship cannot be deprived of it under any circumstances.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3
Answer- Option D
EXPLANATION
Statement 1: The Indian Constitution establishes a single citizenship, which is Indian citizenship. Citizens of India owe allegiance solely to the Union, and there is no provision for separate state citizenship. Additionally, if an Indian citizen voluntarily acquires citizenship of another country, their Indian citizenship is automatically revoked.
Statement 2: In India, the President serves as the Head of State. Both citizens by birth and naturalized citizens are eligible to hold the office of President. This differs from the United States, where only citizens by birth are eligible for the presidency, not naturalized citizens.
Statement 3: It is possible for a foreigner who was previously granted Indian citizenship to have their citizenship revoked.
Q- . With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements: (2021)
1. N. Gopalaswamy Iyenger Committee suggested that a minister and a secretary be designated solely for pursuing the subject of administrative reform and promoting it.
2. In 1970, the Department of personnel was constituted on the recommendation of the Administrative Reforms Commission, 1966, and this was placed under the Prime Minister’s charge.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer- Option D
EXPLANATION
Statement 1: Sh. N. Gopalaswamy Ayyangar was a member of the 7-member Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution, appointed on August 29, 1947. In 1950, he authored a report titled “Reorganization of the Machinery of Central Government,” which recommended various measures for improving the functioning of ministries, enhancing personnel capabilities, and strengthening the Operations and Management Division. The 1st Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) suggested appointing a minister and a secretary dedicated to advancing administrative reform efforts.
Statement 2: The Department of Personnel was established in 1970 based on the recommendations of the 1966 Administrative Reforms Commission. Initially placed under the Cabinet Secretary, it is now situated within the Prime Minister’s Office (PMO).
Q- Consider the following statements: (2021)
1. In India, there is no law restricting the candidates from contesting in one Lok Sabha election from three constituencies.
2. In 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies.
3. As per the existing rules, if a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha election from many constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost of bye-elections to the constituencies vacated by him/her in the event of him/her winning in all the constituencies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3
Answer- Option B
EXPLANATION
Statement 1: The Representation of the People Act, 1951, was amended in 1996 to limit candidates to contesting in a maximum of two constituencies in one election. If a candidate wins in more than one constituency, they are required to retain only one seat, leading to by-elections in the remaining constituencies.
Statement 2: During the 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies. This fact, although not commonly remembered by students, can be verified by eliminating other statements.
Statement 3: There is no provision stating that if a candidate contests multiple Lok Sabha constituencies in one election and wins all of them, their party must cover the costs of the by-elections for the vacated seats. In such cases, the Election Commission of India (ECI) bears the expenses for all elections and by-elections in both Lok Sabha and assembly constituencies.
Q- With reference to the funds under Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS), which of the following statements are correct? (2020)
- MPLADS funds must be used to create durable assets like physical infrastructure for health, education, etc.
- A specified portion of each MP’s fund must benefit SC/ST populations.
- MPLADS funds are sanctioned on yearly basis and the unused funds cannot be carried forward to the next year.
- The district authority must inspect at least 10% of all works under implementation every year.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only
Answer- Option D
EXPLANATION
- MPLADS funds are designated for creating enduring assets such as infrastructure for healthcare and education, aligning with national priorities.
- A portion of each MP’s allocation is intended to benefit SC/ST communities, as per guidelines ensuring equitable distribution of resources.
- Contrary to the statement, MPLADS funds are not forfeited at the end of the year; they can be carried over to subsequent years.
- To uphold accountability and quality, district authorities are required to inspect at least 10% of ongoing projects annually under the MPLADS scheme.
Q- A constitutional government by definition is a (2020)
(a) government by legislature
(b) popular government
(c) multi-party government
(d) limited government
Answer- Option D
EXPLANATION
Constitutional government aims to restrict and oversee the utilization of governmental authority. Constitutional government implies a form of governance with defined limitations. It entails the administration of government affairs in accordance with established rules and principles that are obligatory for all involved in politics.
Thus, constitutional government serves to curb unrestrained power by either separating or distributing it. It establishes a structure wherein the government can simultaneously exhibit responsibility and representation, effectively handling conflicts, safeguarding rights, encouraging citizen involvement, and ensuring the security of the populace.
Q- In India, Legal Services Authorities provide free legal services to which of the following type of citizens? (2020)
- Person with an annual income of less than Rs 1,00,000
- Transgender with an annual income of less than Rs 2,00,000
- Member of Other Backward Classes (OBC) with an annual income of less than ₹ 3,00,000
- All Senior Citizens
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 4 only
Answer- Option A
EXPLANATION
The Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 specifies that individuals with an annual income below the amount prescribed by the respective State Government, or below Rs. 5 Lakhs if the case is before the Supreme Court, are eligible for free legal aid. For most states, NALSA covers individuals with annual incomes not exceeding ₹1 lakh. In Delhi, the income ceiling for transgender individuals mentioned on the NALSA Portal is ₹2 lakh.
There is no provision for free legal aid specifically for OBCs, so Code 3 is incorrect. Similarly, free legal aid is not universally available for all senior citizens, so Code 4 is incorrect.
The categories of individuals entitled to free legal services under Section 12 of the Legal Services Authorities Act include:
- Members of Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes
- Victims of human trafficking or beggary as per Article 23 of the Constitution
- Women or children
- Mentally or otherwise disabled persons
- Individuals facing circumstances of undeserved want such as victims of disasters or violence
- Industrial workers
- Individuals in custody or under institutional care
- Persons with annual incomes below the specified threshold, as determined by the State Government.
Q- In the context of India, which one of the following is the characteristic appropriate for bureaucracy? (2020)
(a) An agency for widening the scope of parliamentary democracy
(b) An agency for strengthening the structure of federalism
(c) An agency for facilitating political stability and economic growth
(d) An agency for the implementation of public policy
Answer- Option D
EXPLANATION
Bureaucracy serves as the permanent executive branch of government. In cases where a political party loses an election and the new government seeks to implement different policies from its predecessor, it becomes the duty of the administrative apparatus (bureaucracy) to actively and proficiently engage in formulating and executing these new policies. Therefore, Option D is the appropriate choice.
Q- Consider the following statements: (2020)
- According to the Constitution of India, a person who is eligible to vote can be made a minister in a State for six months even if he/she is not a member of the Legislature of that State.
- According to the Representation of People Act, 1951, a person convicted of a criminal offence and sentenced to imprisonment for five years is permanently disqualified from contesting an election even after his release from prison.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer- Option D
EXPLANATION
Statement 1 is incorrect because while the voting age is 18 years, eligibility to become a Member of the Legislative Assembly (MLA) requires the individual to be at least 25 years old. Therefore, the statement that every citizen who is 18 years old is eligible to be enrolled as a voter is not accurate.
Statement 2 is incorrect because disqualification under Section 8 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, due to conviction for certain offenses, is not permanent. The convicted candidate is disqualified from being a member of Parliament or State Legislature only for the duration specified in the Act, not indefinitely.
Q- One common agreement between Gandhism and Marxism is (2020)
(a) the final goal of a stateless society
(b) class struggle
(c) abolition of private property
(d) economic determinism
Answer- Option A
EXPLANATION
A stateless society denotes a community without formal governmental structures. Gandhi’s notion of Ramarajya describes a social order devoid of political constraints, comprising self-governing individuals. Similarly, Marx envisioned a communist society without a state. According to Marx, the proletariat would seize control of both the state and production, eradicating class distinctions and conflicts, ultimately leading to the dissolution of the state. Hence, the ultimate outcome would be a society without a governing apparatus.
Q- In the context of India, which one of the following is the characteristic appropriate for bureaucracy? (2020)
(a) An agency for widening the scope of parliamentary democracy
(b) An agency for strengthening the structure of federalism
(c) An agency for facilitating political stability and economic growth
(d) An agency for the implementation of public policy
Answer- Option D
EXPLANATION
Bureaucracy serves as the permanent executive. When a political party is ousted in elections and a new government seeks to replace its policies with new ones, it becomes the duty of the administrative apparatus (bureaucracy) to diligently and effectively contribute to formulating and implementing these policies. Therefore, Option 4 is accurate.
Q- The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of (2019)
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(c) Indira Gandhi
(d) Morarji Desai
Answer- Option A
EXPLANATION
The Ninth Schedule was introduced by the Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1951, and it contains a compilation of central and state laws that are immune from legal challenges in courts. This schedule was established through the addition of Article 31B to the Constitution, alongside Article 31A, with the aim of safeguarding laws related to agrarian reform and the abolition of the Zamindari system. While Article 31A provided protection to categories of laws, Article 31B specifically shielded individual laws or enactments. Although many of the laws safeguarded under the Ninth Schedule pertain to agriculture and land issues, the list encompasses various other subjects as well.
Q- Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India: (2019)
- PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory.
- A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status.
- There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far.
- Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Answer- Option C
EXPLANATION
Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) are a special category of Scheduled Tribes, centrally recognized. They were established during the 4th five-year plan based on the recommendations of the Dhebar Commission (1960-61). These groups are identified based on certain characteristics, including a pre-agricultural level of technology, low literacy rates, economic backwardness, and either a declining or stagnant population. Therefore, Statement 2 is correct. The Ministry of Home Affairs has categorized a total of 75 tribal groups as PVTGs, so Statement 3 is incorrect. PVTGs are found in 18 states and the Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar Islands, confirming the accuracy of Statement 1. Examples of PVTGs include the Konda Reddy tribe of Khammam district in Telangana and the Irular tribe of Tamil Nadu, supporting the accuracy of Statement 4.
Furthermore, various government schemes at the central and state levels benefit PVTG populations alongside other groups. Additionally, the Ministry of Tribal Affairs administers a scheme specifically for PVTGs called the ‘Development of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTG)’ scheme. This initiative provides financial assistance to state and union territory governments based on their proposals for the development of tribal communities across various sectors. Projects under this scheme are demand-driven.
Q- Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the “Rule of Law”? (2018)
- Limitation of powers
- Equality before law
- People’s responsibility to the Government
- Liberty and civil rights
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer- Option C
EXPLANATION
It is the government that is responsible to the people and not the vice versa. (Hence statement 3 is not correct) The term “rule of law” is originated from England and India has adopted the concept. The basic features of Rule of Law as per Dicey: Law does not recognize any special rights for any individual or group of individuals.
Law does not recognize any distinction between one individual and the other on the basis of religion, race, sex, etc. Hence statement 2 is correct.
None is punished without proper trial. All will be tried by the same court under the same law. Rule of Law is to safeguard and advance the political and civil rights of the individual in a free society. Hence statement 4 is correct. The rule of law does not give scope to absolute and arbitrary powers to the executive. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Q- One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of (2017)
(a) Privileges
(b) Restraints
(c) Competition
(d) Ideology
Answer- Option A
EXPLANATION
Option 1 accurately asserts that formal systems of inequality and privilege must be abolished to maintain equality in society.
Option 2 wrongly implies that restraints are incompatible with equality, which is not always the case.
Option 3 incorrectly suggests that competition has no bearing on equality, which may not be entirely accurate given its potential impact on social disparities.
Option 4 inaccurately states that ideology is unrelated to equality, whereas many ideologies prioritize equality as a core value.
Q- Consider the following statements : (2017)
- The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
- The Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
- Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
Answer- Option D
EXPLANATION
The Election Commission of India is an independent constitutional body entrusted with overseeing the electoral processes at both the Union and State levels in India. It manages elections for various bodies such as the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, State Legislative Assemblies, as well as the offices of the President and Vice President. Contrary to statement 1, the Election Commission comprises one Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners, not three Election Commissioners. These officials are appointed by the President and serve a fixed term of six years or until the age of 65, whichever comes earlier. Their status, salary, and perks are equivalent to those of Supreme Court judges.
Regarding statement 2, the Chief Election Commissioner can only be removed from office through a process similar to the removal of a Supreme Court judge by Parliament.
Additionally, the Election Commission is responsible for determining the election schedule for general elections and bye-elections, as well as resolving disputes related to the splits or mergers of recognized political parties. Therefore, only statement 3 accurately reflects the role of the Election Commission of India.
Q- With reference to the ‘Gram Nyayalaya Act’, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2016)
- As per the Act, Gram Nyayalayas can hear only civil cases and not criminal cases
- The Act allows local social activists as mediators/reconciliators.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer- Option B
EXPLANATION
The Gram Nyayalayas, or village courts, were established under the Gram Nyayalayas Act of 2008 with the objective of providing rural areas in India with quick and convenient access to the justice system. These courts are overseen by a Nyayadhikari, who receives similar benefits to those of a Judicial Magistrate of the first class. Contrary to statement 1, Gram Nyayalayas handle both Civil and Criminal cases.
Q- The provisions in the Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to (2015)
(a) protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes
(b) determine the boundaries between states
(c) determine the powers, authorities, and responsibilities of Panchayats
(d) protect the interests of all the border States
Answer- Option A
EXPLANATION
The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution focuses on the management and governance of scheduled areas and tribes in states other than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. Conversely, the Sixth Schedule pertains to the administration of tribal areas in these four northeastern states, safeguarding the interests of scheduled tribes. Therefore, Option 1 is correct.
Q- With reference to National Legal Services Authority, consider the following statements: (2014)
- Its objective is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society on the basis of equal opportunity.
- It issues guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal programs and schemes throughout the country.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer- Option C
EXPLANATION
The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) was established under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, with the primary objective of providing free legal services to the disadvantaged sections of society and organizing Lok Adalats for the amicable resolution of disputes. Consequently, statement 1 accurately describes the role and purpose of NALSA. Additionally, in each state, a State Legal Services Authority has been established to implement the policies and directives of NALSA, provide free legal assistance, and organize Lok Adalats. NALSA issues guidelines to State Legal Services Authorities to ensure the effective implementation of legal programs and schemes nationwide, affirming the correctness of statement 2.
Q- Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, who shall be the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both? (2013)
(a) State Forest Department
(b) District Collector/Deputy Commissioner
(c) Tahsildar /Block Development Officer / Mandai Revenue Officer
(d) Gram Sabha
Answer- Option D
EXPLANATION
As per Chapter IV of the Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006, the Gram Sabha holds the authority to initiate the process of determining the nature and scope of individual or community forest rights, or both. Specifically, the Gram Sabha, which serves as the local authority for Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers within its jurisdictional limits, is responsible for receiving, consolidating, and verifying claims related to forest rights. Furthermore, it is tasked with preparing a map delineating the area covered by each recommended claim, as prescribed for the exercise of such rights. Subsequently, the Gram Sabha passes a resolution to this effect and forwards a copy to the Sub-Divisional Level Committee.
Q- Who among the following constitute the National Development Council? (2013)
- The Prime Minister
- The Chairman, Finance Commission
- Ministers of the Union Cabinet
- Chief Ministers of the States
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer- Option B
EXPLANATION
Chairman of Finance Commission is not a part of National Development Council.
Q- Consider the following statements: (2013)
- The National Development Council is an organ of the Planning Commission.
- The Economic and Social Planning is kept in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India.
- The Constitution of India prescribes that Panchayats should be assigned the task of preparation of plans for economic development and social justice.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3
Answer- Option B
EXPLANATION
Economic and Social Planning is listed on the concurrent list. Article 40 of the Constitution addresses this placement.
The Directive Principles of State Policy mandate the State to facilitate the establishment of village panchayats and empower them with the necessary authority to operate as self-governing units. This includes granting them the power to engage in economic development and promote social justice.
Q- Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution? (2013)
1. National Development Council
2. Planning Commission
3. Zonal Councils
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer- Option D
EXPLANATION
All the mentioned body are not categorized as constitutional bodies.