UPSC PYQ on Parliament

Parliament is important part of polity syllabus. Previous Year Question (PYQ) papers are invaluable resources for aspirants preparing for competitive exams like the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) examinations. In this article we present important PYQ on Parliament.

Q- Consider the following statements: (2022)

The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister.
The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer– Option B

EXPLANATION

Statement 1: The Constitution of India does not categorize the Council of Ministers. Article 74 states that there should be a Council of Ministers led by the Prime Minister to assist and advise the President, who must act based on this advice when performing their duties.

Statement 2: The Constitution (91st Amendment) Act, 2003 modified Article 75. This amendment stipulates that the total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers should not surpass 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha.

Q- Consider the following statements: (2022)

Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India.
According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer- Option D

EXPLANATION

Statement 1: The President of India appoints the Attorney General for India according to Article 76 of the Constitution, and the Attorney General holds office at the President’s pleasure. In the discharge of his duties, he has the right to address all courts in India and participate in parliamentary proceedings without voting rights. The Solicitor General of India does not enjoy these privileges.

Statement 2: According to Article 76, the Attorney General holds office at the pleasure of the President and receives remuneration as determined by the President. The Indian Constitution does not require him to submit his resignation when the government that appointed him resigns.

Q- With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements: (2022)

As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix.
There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.
The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings.
The well established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 2 and 4 only

Answer- Option A

EXPLANATION

Up until the 10th Lok Sabha, it was common for both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker to be members of the ruling party. However, since the 11th Lok Sabha, it has become customary for the Speaker to be from the ruling party or alliance, while the Deputy Speaker typically hails from the main opposition party. Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect.

Article 95(1) states that in the absence of the Speaker, the duties of the office shall be performed by the Deputy Speaker. The Deputy Speaker possesses the same powers as the Speaker when presiding over a session of the House. All mentions of the Speaker in the Rules are considered to refer to the Deputy Speaker when he or she is presiding. Furthermore, there is no recourse to appeal to the Speaker against a ruling made by the Deputy Speaker or any other person presiding over a session of the House in the Speaker’s absence. Thus, statement 3 is correct.

The established parliamentary practice dictates that a motion is proposed by the Parliamentary Affairs Minister and seconded either by the members of the ruling party or by the opposition. This motion is then adopted by the House. Therefore, statement 4 is incorrect.

Q- If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it? (2022)

(a) This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people.

(b) This would create a local self-governing body in that area.

(d) The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State.

Answer- Option A

EXPLANATION

The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution pertains to the administration and governance of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes residing in states other than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.

If a specific area is designated under the Fifth Schedule, it implies that all land within that Scheduled Area is assumed to be indigenous tribal land. Consequently, not only should no land in these areas be transferred to non-tribal individuals, but also any land currently owned by non-tribal individuals, if being transferred, should revert to the ownership of Scheduled Tribes.

Q- Which one of the following in Indian polity is an essential feature that indicates that it is federal in character? (2021)
(a) The independence of the judiciary is safeguarded
(b) The Union Legislature has elected representatives from constituent units
(c) the Union cabinet can have elected representatives from regional parties
(d) The Fundamental rights are enforceable by Courts of Law

Answer- Option A

EXPLANATION

The presence of an independent judiciary in India inherently signifies the federal nature of its political system. The Constitution establishes a judiciary that operates independently, with the Supreme Court at its helm, tasked with resolving disputes between the central government and the states or among the states themselves.

The federal characteristics of the Indian Constitution include:

Dual governance structure comprising the Union at the Center and the states at the periphery.
A written Constitution that outlines the fundamental principles and framework of governance.
Division of powers delineated between the Union and the states, as enumerated in Schedule Seven of the Constitution.
Supremacy of the Constitution, which serves as the supreme law of the land.
Constitutional rigidity, implying the procedures for amending the Constitution are stringent.
Bicameral legislature consisting of the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) and the Lok Sabha (House of the People).
Independence of the judiciary, ensuring its autonomy and impartiality in adjudicating legal matters.

Q- What was the exact constitutional status of India on 26th January, 1950? (2021)
(a) A Democratic Republic
(b) A Sovereign Democratic Republic
(C) A Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic
(d) A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic

Answer- Option B

EXPLANATION

The original Preamble, adopted on 26th November, 1949 and came into force on 26th January, 1950, declared India as a “Sovereign Democratic Republic”.

Q- We adopted parliamentary democracy based on the British model, but how does our model differ from that model? (2021)
1. As regards legislation, the British Parliament is supreme or sovereign but in India, the power of the parliament to legislate is limited.
2. In India, matters related to the constitutionality of the Amendment of an Act of the Parliament are referred to the Constitution Bench by the Supreme Court.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer- Option C

EXPLANATION

Statement 1 is correct: the principle of parliamentary sovereignty within the UK constitution, which establishes Parliament as the highest legal authority capable of enacting or revoking laws without judicial interference. It emphasizes Parliament’s unrestricted power to amend laws, while also highlighting the absence of legal limitations on the authority of future Parliaments.

Statement 2 is also correct, it explains the unique nature of the Indian Parliament’s powers, which differ from those of the British Parliament. It outlines that while the Indian Parliament can amend the Constitution under specific procedures, it cannot alter its fundamental principles, as established by the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973).

Furthermore, it describes the process by which constitutional matters are referred to Constitution Benches within the Supreme Court, clarifying that such benches are convened for significant cases requiring thorough examination by five or more judges. This practice is reserved for complex legal and constitutional questions, demonstrating the Court’s commitment to upholding the integrity and interpretation of the Constitution.

Q- Which of the following factors constitutes the best safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy? (2021)
(a) A committed judiciary
(b) Centralization of powers
(c) Elected government
(d) Separation of powers

Answer- Option D

EXPLANATION

The division of powers among the legislature, executive, and judiciary is a crucial safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy. This principle, known as the Separation of Powers, involves allocating legislative, executive, and judicial responsibilities to distinct branches of government. This separation serves to reduce the risk of arbitrary abuses of power by ensuring that each branch acts as a check and balance on the others. Consequently, no single branch can monopolize or encroach upon the essential functions of the others.

Q- Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in (2020)

(a) the matter of creating new All India Services

(b) amending the Constitution

(d) making cut motions

Answer- Option B

EXPLANATION

The Parliament of India consists of two houses: the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) and the Lok Sabha (House of the People). While these houses possess distinct powers and roles, they hold equal authority in the process of amending the Constitution. Therefore, any constitutional amendment must receive approval from both the Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha. This stipulation guarantees that significant alterations to the Constitution cannot be enacted without substantial agreement from members of both houses of Parliament.

Q- Along with the Budget, the Finance Minister also places other documents before the Parliament which include ‘The Macro Economic Framework Statement’. The aforesaid document is presented because this is mandated by (2020)

(a) Long standing parliamentary convention

(b) Article 112 and Article 110(1) of the Constitution of India

(d) Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003

Answer- Option D

EXPLANATION

The Macro-economic Framework Statement, mandated by Section 3(5) of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003, is a document presented to Parliament alongside the Union Budget. This statement evaluates the economic growth prospects based on certain assumptions, including projections for GDP growth, the fiscal balance of the Central Government, and the external sector balance. It is submitted on an annual basis.

Q- A Parliamentary System of Government is one in which (2020)

(a) all political parties in the Parliament are represented in the Government

(b) the Government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by it

(d) the Government is chosen by the Parliament but cannot be removed by it before completion of a fixed term

Answer- Option B

EXPLANATION

The parliamentary system is a democratic model of governance wherein the party or coalition holding the most seats in parliament forms the government, with its leader assuming the role of prime minister or chancellor. Members of parliament appointed by the prime minister comprise the cabinet and execute executive functions. Opposition parties, representing the minority, regularly challenge the majority. Prime ministers can be ousted if they lose the confidence of the ruling party or parliament.
Originating in Britain, this system has been adopted by many former British colonies. In India, the government is accountable to parliament and can be dismissed by it, particularly by the Lok Sabha, making it a “Parliamentary form of government.” Hence, Option 2 is the correct choice.

Q- Consider the following statements: (2020)

The Constitution of India defines its ‘basic structure’ in terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights and democracy.
The Constitution of India provides for ‘judicial review’ to safeguard the citizens’ liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the Constitution is based.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer- Option D

EXPLANATION

The concept of ‘basic structure’ was established by the Supreme Court in the landmark Kesavananda Bharati vs State of Kerala case in 1973, making Statement 1 incorrect.

Judicial review entails the judiciary overseeing the exercise of power by other branches of government to ensure they adhere to the constitutional limits on their authority. Rooted in the principles of the rule of law and separation of powers, judicial review is integral to the Indian Constitution despite not being explicitly stated. Therefore, Statement 2 is also incorrect.

Q- Consider the following statements: (2020)

The President of India can summon a session of the Parliament at such a place as he/she thinks fit.
The Constitution of India provides for three sessions of the Parliament in a year, but it is not mandatory to conduct all three sessions.
There is no minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in a year.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Answer- Option C

EXPLANATION

Article 85(1) of the Constitution stipulates that the President must summon each House of Parliament to convene at a time and place of their choosing, ensuring that no more than six months elapse between the end of one session and the beginning of the next. Therefore, Statement 1 is correct.
The Lok Sabha is mandated to convene at least twice a year; however, there is no constitutional requirement for three parliamentary sessions annually, rendering Statement 2 incorrect.
Furthermore, there is no specified minimum number of days for which Parliament must convene within a year, Statement 3 is correct.

Q- Consider the following statements: (2019)

The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’.
The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.
The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well-defined in the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer- Option A

EXPLANATION

The term ‘office of profit’ appears in Article 102 and Article 191 of the Constitution, yet it remains undefined within the document. As per Article 102 (1) (a) and Article 191 (1) (a), individuals are ineligible to serve as members of Parliament or Legislative Assembly/Council if they hold any office of profit under the government, unless exempted by law enacted by Parliament.
The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959, amended multiple times, extends the list of exempted offices. Therefore, Statement 3 is incorrect, while Statement 2 is correct due to the existence and amendment history of the aforementioned Act. Statement 1 is also correct, as the Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 identifies offices exempted from disqualification, and there are no limitations on the number of exempted offices.

Q- With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and reports to the house whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation ? (2018)

(a) Committee on Government Assurances

(b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation

(d) Business Advisory Committee

Answer- Option B

EXPLANATION

The Committee on Subordinate Legislation, established in 1953, assesses and reports to the respective House whether the authority to create rules, regulations, bye-laws, schemes, or other legal instruments, as granted by the Constitution or delegated by Parliament, is being appropriately exercised. Each house forms its committee with 15 members, with the Chairman selected from among them by the Chairman of the House, or by the Deputy Chairman if they are a committee member. A meeting of the Committee requires a minimum of five members present to constitute a quorum. The Committee is empowered to compel individuals to attend or submit documents or records if deemed necessary for fulfilling its responsibilities.

Q- Consider the following statements: (2018)

The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer- Option A

EXPLANATION

The Ninth Schedule was introduced into the Constitution through the first amendment in 1951, alongside Article 31-B, aiming to shield land reform laws from legal challenges based on violations of fundamental rights. The Supreme Court validated the constitutionality of Article 31-B and Parliament’s authority to include specific laws in the Ninth Schedule.

However, the Supreme Court has clarified that laws listed in the Ninth Schedule are subject to judicial review and do not receive blanket protection. Following the Keshwanand Bharti Judgment in 1973, which established the “basic structure” doctrine, laws added to the Ninth Schedule can be contested in court.

Q- Consider the following statements: (2018)

In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party.
In the Lok Sabha, a “Leader of the Opposition” was recognised for the first time in 1969.
In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognised as the Leader of the Opposition.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer- Option B

EXPLANATION

Statement 1 is not correct: The Congress party secured a dominant victory in the inaugural Lok Sabha election, winning 364 out of 489 seats, far surpassing any other political contender. The Communist Party of India, the closest competitor in terms of seats, managed to secure only 16 seats.

Statement 2 correct: In 1969, the position of the official Leader of the Opposition was acknowledged for the first time, although it received formal statutory recognition in 1977.

Statement 3 is not correct: The assertion that the leader of the largest Opposition party with at least one-tenth of the total seats in the House is recognized as the Leader of Opposition in that House is incorrect.

Q- If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State, then (2018)

(a) the Assembly of the State is automatically dissolved.

(b) the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.

(d) the President can make laws relating to that State.

Answer- Option B

EXPLANATION

Option “B” is the correct answer because it states that under Article 356, the President’s Rule can be invoked, allowing the President to proclaim that the powers of the state legislature will be exercised by the Parliament.

Q- With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements: (2017)

A private member’s bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President of India.
Recently, a private member’s bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer- Option D

EXPLANATION

The second statement is incorrect as private member bills, introduced by Members of Parliament who are not ministers, have been passed by both Houses and enacted into law on 14 occasions throughout the history of the Indian Parliament.

Q- The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through (2017)

Adjournment motion
Question hour
Supplementary questions

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer- Option D

EXPLANATION

Parliament exercises oversight through various mechanisms such as committees, question hour, zero hour, etc. Additionally, ministers are collectively accountable to Parliament. Members of Parliament (MPs) ensure executive accountability by posing questions and supplementary questions.
Urgent matters can be addressed through Adjournment motions, which aim to highlight recent issues of significant public concern. Unstarred questions elicit written responses, while starred questions prompt oral answers from ministers during question hour, allowing MPs to further inquire and scrutinize ministerial responses.

Q- The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that (2017)

(a) the executive and legislature work independently.

(b) it provides continuity of policy and is more efficient.

(d) the head of the government cannot be changed without election.

Answer- Option C

EXPLANATION

The parliamentary system, also referred to as Cabinet Government, ensures that the executive remains accountable to the legislature, maintaining collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature.

Q- Consider the following statements: (2017)

In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 percent of the votes polled, to be declared elected.
According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker’s post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the Opposition.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer- Option D

EXPLANATION

India employs a first-past-the-post electoral system for both the Lok Sabha and State Assembly elections, where candidates securing a plurality rather than a majority of votes can win. Additionally, the Indian Constitution follows a system of territorial representation, with Members of Parliament (MPs) or Members of Legislative Assembly (MLAs) representing specific geographic constituencies. Each constituency elects only one representative, making it a single-member constituency. Under this system, a candidate who garners the most votes is declared the winner. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect.

Until the 10th Lok Sabha, it was common for both the Deputy Speaker and the Speaker to be members of the ruling party. However, since the 11th Lok Sabha, there has been an informal consensus among political parties that the Deputy Speaker position goes to the main opposition party while the Speaker position is held by the ruling party or alliance. This arrangement is not a constitutional provision but rather an informal understanding among political parties. Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect.

Q- For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by (2017)

(a) anyone residing in India.

(b) a resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested.

(d) any citizen of India.

Answer- Option C

EXPLANATION

Anyone aged 25 or above, registered as an elector in a constituency, and an Indian citizen is eligible to contest a Lok Sabha election. Furthermore, a candidate registered as a voter in a particular state can contest from any seat in any state. However, individuals convicted of an offense and serving a prison sentence, or out on bail pending appeal, are ineligible for nomination. Upon filing a nomination, every candidate must make a security deposit of Rs 25,000 for the Lok Sabha election, with candidates from Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes required to deposit only half that amount, Rs 12,500.

Learn to structure your mains answer properly from here.

Q- Which of the following statements is/are correct? (2016)

A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its prorogation.
A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha, shall not lapse on dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer- Option B

EXPLANATION

Statement 1 is incorrect: as bills pending in Parliament do not lapse due to the prorogation of the Houses. Prorogation does not affect pending bills or any other parliamentary business.

Statement 2 is correct. A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha that has not been passed by the Lok Sabha does not lapse upon the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

Additionally, bills originating in the Lok Sabha or transmitted to it by the Rajya Sabha, but pending in the Lok Sabha, will lapse. Similarly, bills originating and passed in the Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha are also considered lapsed. However, bills passed by both Houses but pending presidential assent do not lapse.

Q- The Parliament of India acquires the power to legislate on any item in the State List in the national interest if a resolution to that effect is passes by the (2016)

(a) Lok Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership

(b) Lok Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its total membership

(d) Rajya Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its members present and voting

Answer- Option D

EXPLANATION

The correct answer is that the Rajya Sabha can legislate on any subject in the State List if a resolution to that effect is passed by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its members present and voting. This provision, outlined in Article 249 of the Constitution, allows the Union Parliament to enact legislation on State List matters deemed to be in the national interest. Resolutions passed under this provision remain valid for a duration of up to one year as specified therein.

Q- There is a Parliamentary System of Government in India because the (2015)

(a) Lok Sabha is elected directly by the people

(b) Parliament can amend the constitution

(d) Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha

Answer- Option D

EXPLANATION

The Lok Sabha, which is directly elected by the people, embodies the democratic system. According to Article 75(3) of the Constitution, the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. The parliamentary system is a form of democratic governance where the executive branch derives its democratic legitimacy from and is accountable to the legislature (parliament). In India, individuals must be members of parliament to serve in the executive branch, thus intertwining the executive with the legislature.

Q- Consider the following statements : (2015)

The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill
The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants.
The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer- Option B

EXPLANATION

A Money Bill cannot be proposed in the Rajya Sabha, and the Rajya Sabha cannot reject or modify a Money Bill; it can only provide suggestions on such bills. While the Rajya Sabha can discuss on the budget, it does not have the authority to vote on demands for grants, which is solely the privilege of the Lok Sabha.

Q- When a bill is referred to a joint sitting both the Houses of the Parliament, has to be passed by (2015)

(a) a simple majority of member present and voting

(b) three-fourths majority of member present and voting

(d) absolute majority of the House

Answer- Option A

EXPLANATION

In a joint session of Parliament, a bill is passed by a simple majority of the total number of members of both Houses present and voting. Only bills that require a simple majority in both houses and are subject to disagreement between the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha can be introduced or approved during a joint session. Additionally, bills are passed quickly through a joint sitting of Parliament, where the influence of the Lok Sabha, with its larger membership, prevails over the Rajya Sabha. Therefore, option A is correct.

Q- Consider the following statements: (2015)

The Executive Power of the Union of India is vested in the Prime Minister.
The Prime Minister is the ex officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer- Option D

EXPLANATION

Statement 1 is incorrect as it erroneously states that the executive power of the Union is vested in the President alone. However, according to Article 53(1) of the constitution, the executive power of the Union is indeed vested in the President, who may exercise it either directly or through subordinate officers. Ministers are considered subordinate officers to the President, and the real executive power is exercised by the Council of Ministers in the President’s name. Additionally, all executive decisions are made in the name of the President, as specified in Article 77.
Statement 2 is also incorrect as it misstates the role of the Cabinet Secretary. The Cabinet Secretary serves as the ex-officio chairman of the Civil Services Board and the Cabinet Secretariat, as well as the head of all civil services under the rules of business of the Government of India.

he total membership of the State Legislative Assembly, but it cannot be fewer than 40 members.
Statement 2 is also incorrect because it incorrectly states the tenure and election process of Members of the Legislative Council (MLCs). MLCs serve for a term of six years, with one-third of the members retiring every two years, and the Chairman of the Legislative Council is elected by its members from amongst themselves.

Q- With reference to the Union Government consider the following statements. (2015)

The Department of Revenue is responsible for the preparation of Union Budget that is presented to the parliament
No amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without the authorization of Parliament of India.
All the disbursements made from Public Account also need the Authorization from the Parliament of India

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer- Option C

EXPLANATION

In the preparation of the budget to be presented in Parliament, the Department of Economic Affairs, rather than the Revenue Department, is responsible for the Union Budget’s preparation. Since the Budget division falls under Economic Affairs, the Finance Secretary oversees the design and implementation of the budget process. It is important to note that prior authorization is required to withdraw any funds from the Consolidated Fund of India. On the other hand, the Indian Public Account can be managed through executive action without requiring authorization from Parliament.

Q- Consider the following statements: (2014)

The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.
All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer- Option A

EXPLANATION

Statement 1 is correct as Article 77 of the Indian Constitution pertains to the “Conduct of Business of the Government of India,” wherein the President is empowered to establish rules for the more efficient management of government affairs and allocate business among Ministers.

However, statement 2 is incorrect.

Clause (1) of Article 77 indeed mandates that the Government of India must express all executive actions in the name of the President. However, this statement mistakenly implies inaccurateness. Therefore, statement 2 should acknowledge the accuracy of the clause’s assertion.

Clause (2) of Article 77 accurately outlines the authentication process for orders and instruments made and executed in the President’s name.

Q- Which of the following is/are the function/functions of the Cabinet Secretariat? (2014)

Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings
Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees
Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer- Option C

EXPLANATION

Statement 1 and statement 2 are both correct. The Cabinet Secretariat is responsible for administering the Government of India and aids in decision-making by facilitating inter-ministerial coordination and consensus-building through various committees.

However, statement 3 is incorrect. The Ministry of Finance, specifically the Department of Expenditure, is responsible for allocating financial resources to the Ministries, not the Cabinet Secretariat.

Q- Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament? (2014)

(a) The Committee on Public Accounts

(b) The Committee on Estimates

(d) The Committee on Petitions

Answer- Option B

EXPLANATION

Estimate committee of the parliament is the largest committee, with 30 members, all of them being from Lok Sabha.

Q- Consider the following statements regarding a No-Confidence Motion in India: (2015)

There is no mention of a No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution of India.
A Motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer- Option C

EXPLANATION

Article 75 of the Indian Constitution states that the council of ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. No-Confidence motion can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha So statement 2 is correct.
While Article 118 of the Indian Constitution empowers both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha to establish their own rules of procedure, there is no specific mention of the “no-confidence” motion in the Constitution. Therefore, statement 1 is correct. Rule 198 of the Lok Sabha outlines the procedure for a motion of no-confidence. Upon receiving a notice, the Speaker presents it to the House, and if at least 50 MPs support it, the Speaker schedules a date for discussion. The vote must occur within 10 days, and if the majority favors the motion, the government in power must resign.

Q- Consider the following statements: (2013)

The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament.
The Union Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President of India.
The Prime Minister shall communicate to the President about the proposals for Legislation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) only 1

(b) only 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer- Option B

EXPLANATION

Statement 1 is incorrect as the Council of Ministers in the Centre is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha, not the entire Parliament.
2 Statement is correct as Union Ministers serve at the pleasure of the President of India.
Statement 3 is also correct, as the Prime Minister is responsible for communicating legislative proposals to the President.

Q- In the context of India, which of the following principles is/are implied institutionally in the parliamentary government? (2013)

Members of the Cabinet are Members of the Parliament.
Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence in the Parliament.
The Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer- Option A

EXPLANATION

In a parliamentary form of government, the Cabinet is led by the Prime Minister. Members of the Cabinet are also members of Parliament, reflecting India’s adoption of the parliamentary system. The Cabinet is led by the head of the government, not the head of state. In India, the President serves as the head of state, while the Prime Minister serves as the head of government.

Q- Consider the following statements: (2013)

The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts (PAC)

consists of not more than 25 Members of the Lok Sabha
scrutinizes appropriation and finance accounts of Government
examines the report of CAG.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct? `

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer- Option B

EXPLANATION

Statement 1 is incorrect as it states that the Public Accounts Committee consists of not more than 22 members, including 15 members elected by the Lok Sabha every year from amongst its members. However, the correct composition is that the committee consists of not more than 22 members, including 15 members elected by the Lok Sabha every year from amongst its members.

Statements 2 and 3 are correct. The Public Accounts Committee is responsible for examining the Appropriation Accounts related to various government departments and ministries, as well as reports from the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India. The Comptroller and Auditor General plays a crucial role as an advisor to the committee, attending its meetings and providing assistance during deliberations.

Therefore, the paraphrased version should clarify the accurate composition of the Public Accounts Committee and confirm the roles of examining accounts and the assistance provided by the Comptroller and Auditor General.

Q- The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties (2013)

(a) with the consent of all the States

(b) with the consent of the majority of States

(d) without the consent of any State

Answer- Option D

EXPLANATION

The Parliament has the authority to enact laws concerning subjects in the State List for the purpose of implementing international treaties, agreements, or conventions. This provision allows the Central government to meet its international obligations.

During instances of President’s Rule in a state, the Parliament gains the ability to legislate on matters within the State List pertaining to that state. Legislation passed by Parliament remains valid even after the President’s Rule is lifted.

In the event of a national emergency, the Parliament is empowered to legislate on matters listed in the State List. However, these laws cease to be effective six months after the termination of the emergency.

Q- What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha? (2013)

(a) The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha

(b) The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill further

(d) The President may call a joint sitting for passing the Bill

Answer- Option A

EXPLANATION

Although Legislative Council can’t amend or reject the money bill, it can make recommendations, which Legislative Assembly may or may not accept. If the legislative assembly accepts any recommendation, the bill is then deemed to have been passed by both the Houses in the modified form. If the legislative assembly does not accept any recommendation, the bill is then deemed to have been passed by both the Houses in the form originally passed by the legislative assembly without any change.

Q- Consider the following statements: (2013)

The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House.
While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer- Option B

EXPLANATION

Statement 1 is incorrect, because while the Vice President of India serves as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and presides over its sessions, they are not a member of that house. The members of the Rajya Sabha elect the Deputy Chairman, who is responsible for managing day-to-day affairs in the absence of the Chairman, thus making them a member of the House.

Statement 2 is correct: The Vice President is elected by both the elected and nominated members of both the Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha. However, they do not possess voting rights in Presidential elections.

Q- With reference to Indian History, the Members of the Constituent Assembly from the Provinces were (2013)
(a) directly elected by the people of those Provinces
(b) nominated by the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League
(c) elected by the Provincial Legislative Assemblies
(d) selected by the Government for their expertise constitutional matters

Answer- Option C

EXPLANATION

The total strength of the Constituent Assembly was set at 389 members, with 296 seats designated for British India and 93 seats for the princely states. Allocation of seats in each province and princely state was to be based on their respective populations. Within each British province, seats were divided among Muslims, Sikhs, and the General community in proportion to their populations. Representatives of each community were to be elected solely by members of their own community in the provincial legislative assembly. Nomination of representatives from the princely states was done by the heads of those states.

Also Read about UPSC PYQ on Fundamental Rights and DPSP.

UPSC PYQ on Parliament